CSSLP Online Practice Questions and Answers

Correct Answer: BDEF

Microsoft software security expert Michael Howard defines the following heuristics for determining code review in "A Process for Performing Security Code Reviews": Old code: Newer code provides better understanding of software security and has lesser number of vulnerabilities. Older code must be checked deeply. Code that runs by default: It must have high quality, and must be checked deeply than code that does not execute by default. Code that runs by default increases the application's attack surface. Code that runs in elevated context: It must have higher quality. Code that runs in elevated privileges must be checked deeply and increases the application's attack surface. Anonymously accessible code: It must be checked deeply than code that only authorized users and administrators can access, and it increases the application's attack surface. Code listening on a globally accessible network interface: It must be checked deeply for security vulnerabilities and increases the application's attack surface. Code written in C/C++/assembly language: It is prone to security vulnerabilities, for example, buffer overruns. Code with a history of security vulnerabilities: It includes additional vulnerabilities except concerted efforts that are required for removing them. Code that handles sensitive data: It must be checked deeply to ensure that data is protected from unintentional disclosure. Complex code: It includes undiscovered errors because it is more difficult to analyze complex code manually and programmatically. Code that changes frequently: It has more security vulnerabilities than code that does not change frequently.

Correct Answer: CDEFG

The potential security disadvantages of virtualization are as follows: It increases configuration effort because of complexity and composite system. It initiates the problem of how to prevent overlap while mapping VM storage onto host files. It introduces the problem of virtualizing the TPM. It creates the possibility that remote attestation may not work. It initiates the problem of detecting VM covert channels. It involves new protection mechanisms for preventing VM escape, VM detection, and VM-VM interference. It initiates the possibility of virtual networking configuration errors. It initiates the risk that malicious software is targeting the VM environment. It increases overall security risk shared resources, such as networks, clipboards, clocks, printers, desktop management, and folders. Answer: A and B are incorrect. These are not the disadvantages of virtualization, as described in the NIST Information Security and Privacy Advisory Board (ISPAB) paper "Perspectives on Cloud Computing and Standards".

Correct Answer: BDE

Continuous Monitoring is the fourth phase of the security certification and accreditation process. The Continuous Monitoring process consists of the following three main activities: Configuration management and control Security control monitoring and impact analyses of changes to the information system Status reporting and documentation The objective of these tasks is to observe and evaluate the information system security controls during the system life cycle. These tasks determine whether the changes that have occurred will negatively impact the system security. Answer: A and C are incorrect. Security accreditation decision and security accreditation documentation are the two tasks of the security accreditation phase.

Correct Answer:

Regression testing focuses on finding defects after a major code change has occurred. Specifically, it seeks to uncover software regressions, or old bugs that have come back. Such regressions occur whenever software functionality that was previously working correctly stops working as intended. Typically, regressions occur as an unintended consequence of program changes, when the newly developed part of the software collides with the previously existing code. Regression testing tests the system efficiency by systematically selecting the suitable and minimum set of tests that are required to effectively cover the affected changes. Answer: A is incorrect. Unit testing is a type of testing in which each independent unit of an application is tested separately. During unit testing, a developer takes the smallest unit of an application, isolates it from the rest of the application code, and tests it to determine whether it works as expected. Unit testing is performed before integrating these independent units into modules. The most common approach to unit testing requires drivers and stubs to be written. Drivers and stubs are programs. A driver simulates a calling unit, and a stub simulates a called unit. Answer: C is incorrect. Acceptance testing is performed on the application before its implementation into the production environment. It is done either by a client or an application specialist to ensure that the software meets the requirement for which it was made. Answer: B is incorrect. Integration testing is a software testing that seeks to verify the interfaces between components against a software design. Software components may be integrated in an iterative way or all together ("big bang"). Normally the former is considered a better practice since it allows interface issues to be localized more quickly and fixed. Integration testing works to expose defects in the interfaces and interaction between the integrated components (modules). Progressively larger groups of tested software components corresponding to elements of the architectural design are integrated and tested until the software works as a system.

Correct Answer: BD

FISMA and Office of Management and Budget (OMB) require all general support systems and major applications to be fully certified and accredited before they are put into production. General support systems and major applications are also referred to as information systems and are required to be reaccredited every three years. Answer: A is incorrect. The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), known between 1901 and 1988 as the National Bureau of Standards (NBS), is a measurement standards laboratory which is a non- regulatory agency of the United States Department of Commerce. The institute's official mission is to promote U.S. innovation and industrial competitiveness by advancing measurement science, standards, and technology in ways that enhance economic security and improve quality of life. Answer: C is incorrect. The Federal Information Processing Standards (FIPS) are publicly announced standards developed by the United States federal government for use by all non- military government agencies and by government contractors. Many FIPS standards are modified versions of standards used in the wider community (ANSI, IEEE, ISO, etc.). Some FIPS standards were originally developed by the U.S. government. For instance, standards for encoding data (e.g., country codes), but more significantly some encryption standards, such as the Data Encryption Standard (FIPS 46-3) and the Advanced Encryption Standard (FIPS 197). In 1994, NOAA (Noaa) began broadcasting coded signals called FIPS (Federal Information Processing System) codes along with their standard weather broadcasts from local stations. These codes identify the type of emergency and the specific geographic area (such as a county) affected by the emergency.

Correct Answer: B

Documentation control is a method of ensuring that system changes should be agreed upon before being implemented, only the proposed and approved changes are implemented, and the implementation is complete and accurate. Documentation control is involved in the strict events for proposing, monitoring, and approving system changes and their implementation. It helps the change process by supporting the person who synchronizes the analytical task, approves system changes, reviews the implementation of changes, and oversees other tasks such as documenting the controls. Answer: D is incorrect. Configuration auditing is the quality assurance element of configuration management. It is occupied in the process of periodic checks to establish the consistency and completeness of accounting information and to validate that all configuration management policies are being followed. Configuration audits are broken into functional and physical configuration audits. They occur either at delivery or at the moment of effecting the change. A functional configuration audit ensures that functional and performance attributes of a configuration item are achieved, while a physical configuration audit ensures that a configuration item is installed in accordance with the requirements of its detailed design documentation. Answer: A is incorrect. Configuration control is a procedure of the Configuration management. Configuration control is a set of processes and approval stages required to change a configuration item's attributes and to re-baseline them. It supports the change of the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of changes to the identified attributes. Answer: C is incorrect. Configuration identification is the process of identifying the attributes that define every aspect of a configuration item. A configuration item is a product (hardware and/or software) that has an end-user purpose. These attributes are recorded in configuration documentation and baselined. Baselining an attribute forces formal configuration change control processes to be effected in the event that these attributes are changed.

Correct Answer: ACD

The Code of Ethics Canons in (ISC)2 code of ethics are as follows: Protect society, the commonwealth, and the infrastructure. Act honorably, honestly, justly, responsibly, and legally. Provide diligent and competent service to principals. Advance and protect the profession.

Correct Answer: C

Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA) is a tool that includes a graphical and command line interface that can perform local or remote scans of Windows systems. It runs on computers running Windows 2000, Windows XP, or Windows Server 2003 operating system. MBSA scans for common security misconfigurations in Windows NT 4.0, Windows 2000, Windows XP, Windows Server 2003, Internet Information Server (IIS) 4.0 and above, SQL Server 7.0 and 2000, and Office 2000 and 2002. It also scans for missing hot fixes in several Microsoft products, such as Windows 2000, Windows XP, SQL Server etc. Answer: B, D, and A are incorrect. These are invalid options.

Correct Answer: CD

The main purposes of a Regulatory policy are as follows: It ensures that an organization is following the standard procedures or base practices of operation in its specific industry. It gives an organization the confidence that it is following the standard and accepted industry policy. Answer: B and A are incorrect. These are the policy elements of Senior Management Statement of Policy.

Correct Answer: C

A trade secret is a formula, practice, process, design, instrument, pattern, or compilation of information which is not generally known. It helps a business to obtain an economic advantage over its competitors or customers. In some jurisdictions, such secrets are referred to as confidential information or classified information. Answer: A is incorrect. A copyright is a form of intellectual property, which secures to its holder the exclusive right to produce copies of his or her works of original expression, such as a literary work, movie, musical work or sound recording, painting, photograph, computer program, or industrial design, for a defined, yet extendable, period of time. It does not cover ideas or facts. Copyright laws protect intellectual property from misuse by other individuals. Answer: B is incorrect. A utility model is an intellectual property right to protect inventions. Answer: D is incorrect. A cookie is a small bit of text that accompanies requests and pages as they move between Web servers and browsers. It contains information that is read by a Web application, whenever a user visits a site. Cookies are stored in the memory or hard disk of client computers. A Web site stores information, such as user preferences and settings in a cookie. This information helps in providing customized services to users. There is absolutely no way a Web server can access any private information about a user or his computer through cookies, unless a user provides the information. A Web server cannot access cookies created by other Web servers.